Post by tanzanlinnear on Jun 8, 2005 16:14:57 GMT -5
The other thread (and the movies) got me thinking about this... In AOTC, Anakin was hit and went down, Obi-Wan (being more experienced) was able to use his lightsaber to block the lightning with his lightsaber (maybe the blade absorbed or dissipated the energy, like a kind of lightning rod) Yoda was then able to absorb the lightning directly without harm. This is all well and good... How come then in ROTS, that Yoda was even hit by the lightning the first time (it couldn't have been any more of a surprize to him than when Dooku did it), but mainly, how come Master Windu's blade deflected the lightning rather than absorb/dissipating it? (Other than plot necessity, of course) The reason I wonder is because the novelization and visual dictionary both point out that Vader wouldn't be able to cast (or block) Force lightning, because it required living hands to do so (makes sense as the Force is generated by living things) So with that in mind, how come Obi-Wan and Master Windu were able to use their sabers to block/deflect the lightning? 
